Saturday, June 20, 2009
I have collected a lot of DI questions for your practise. I hope that you would to solve them as soon as possible. Pals, any type of material you want, just ask me. I shall provide the material with in a day. As DI is very important topic and requires a lot of practise so I am trying to collect as much material for myself as well as for you people. So don't forget to do speed mathematics regularly and only then you can speed up you DI calculations.
Here is the download link:
Best of Luck
Thursday, June 18, 2009
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Each question has a word that has been used in a sentence that gives its contextual usage. From the choices, choose the word that is the most appropriate substitute for the question word, in the context.
1. Scoffed(at): A 20% growth in exports is not something to be scoffed at.
(1) tanned (2) appreciated (3) devalued (4) followed
2. Flamboyance: Mr. Sarkar is known for his flamboyance but little else.
(1) exaggeration (2) flagellation (3) industry (4) ostentation
3. Reiterate: The minister in his speech has reiterated the established policy stance.
(1) repeated (2) opposed (3) supported (4) encouraged
4. Corroborative: It is not always possible to obtain corroborative evidence in insurgency cases.
(1) authentic (2) misleading (3) spurious (4) confirmative
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: For each word given below, a contextual usage is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word that is the most inappropriate substitute for the question word, in the given context.
5. Jaundiced: The disillusioned prisoners of war developed a jaundiced view of the UN’s peace initiatives.
(1) cynical (2) puerile (3) pessimistic (4) disenchanted
6. Desecrated: The suburb was tense after an idol had seen desecrated by hooligans.
(1) vandalized (2) violated (3) defaced (4) impaired
7. Winding: Driving down the winding ghat roads requires great caution and skill.
(1) serpentine (2) aligned (3) sinuous (4) tortuous
8. Straitened: The sudden death of the patriarch left the family in straitened circumstances.
(1) penurious (2) destitute (3) dire (4) impoverished
DIRECTIONS for Questions 9 to 12: In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4.Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
1 The children were having fun chasing each other’s shadow.
2 Though I tried hard, her work put mine in the shadow.
3 People live under the shadow of fear in a military regime.
4 I knew beyond a shadow of doubt that he was lying.
1 Post the bill quickly lest anyone should notice it.
2 His suffering from severe cold can be easily made out from his bill.
3 Look how sharp the bill of that woodpecker is.
4 The bill was passed by 290 votes to 85.
1 We should make no compromise where safety is concerned.
2 Parents are concerned about excessive violence on television.
3 They were more concerned about how the speaker was dressed than about what she was saying.
4 She has started making a concerned effort to find a job.
1 Unless we flag him without food for two more days, he will not speak the truth.
2 Though indefatigable, he began to flag before the match ended.
3 Can you flag all the relevant pages in this book?
4 No other flag can be hoisted here except ours.
DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Select the correct word/words from the choices that complete the given sentence. Please note that more than once choice may fit in to make a syntactically correct sentence but select the choice that is logical in the context of the
13. An experienced politician, who knew better than to launch a campaign in troubled political waters, she intended to wait for a more
______ occasion before she announced her plans.
(1) propitious (2) provocative (3) questionable (4) perfect
14. The judge ruled that the evidence was inadmissible on the grounds that it was not ______ to the issue at hand
(1) useful (2) germane (3) manifest (4) inchoate
15. To seek ______ from the ______ summer of the plains, many people prefer going to cooler climes during the summer months.
(1) refuge . . . scalding (2) shelter . . . boiling (3) respite . . . scorching (4) solace . . . blazing
16. The columnist was almost ______ when he mentioned his friends but he was unpleasant and even ______ when he discussed people who irritated him.
(1) recalcitrant . . . sarcastic (2) reverential . . . acrimonious
(3) sensitive . . . remorseful (4) insipid . . . militant
DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 21: Fill the blanks in the passages below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author’s overall style and meaning when you choose the
Twenty-five years ago, when
17. (1) chronic (2) lingering (3) characteristic (4) incessant
18. (1) irrefutably (2) irresistibly (3) irrationally (4) irretrievably
19. (1) malfunctioning (2) performing (3) functioning (4) farfetched
Turning out concise, clichéd paragraphs, with little ----20--- but at high speed, is a talent that is
greatly prized by international news agencies - along with a stomach for filthy coffee and the ability to work round the clock. Nothing will kill off a natural writing gift quite so well as a ----21--- news-agency training.
20. (1) orthodoxy (2) originality (3) authenticity (4) organization
21. (1) widespread (2) superficial (3) thoughtful (4) thorough
Rama went to the market and bought some apples, mangoes and bananas. He bought 42 fruits in all. The number of bananas is less than half the number of apples; the number of mangoes is more than one-third the number of apples and the number of mangoes is less than three-fourths the number of bananas.
1. How many apples did Rama buy?
(1) 20 (2) 23 (3) 26 (4) 28
2. How many bananas did Rama buy?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11
DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 5: These questions are based on the data given below.
Everyday, Saddam, the office attender fetches water for the office in container A which has certain rated capacity.
However, because of a dent at the bottom of the container, only 80% of the rated capacity of the container can be used to fill water. This water is transferred periodically into a smaller container B - for people in the office to use this water for drinking. There is an outlet (a faucet) in B from which water is let out. Since the faucet is fixed at a level above the base of B, water upto 10% of the rated capacity of B cannot be let out through the faucet. Everyday in the morning, after Saddam fetches water in container A, he cleans B and fills B to the brim by pouring water from A into B. Whenever the water level falls to the faucet level in B, he again fills B to the brim by pouring water from A into B. The questions in this set are independent of each other.
3. On a particular day, Saddam finds that he filled B five times (including the first time) and at the end of the day, A was empty. The water level in B reached the faucet level. What is the ratio of the rated capacities of A and B?
(1) 4.6 : 1 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 5.75 : 1 (4) 6.25 : 1
4. If Saddam gets the dent in container A removed (so that water can be fetched in this container to its rated capacity) how many times can he fill container B (including the first time in the morning) given that the rated capacities of the two containers are in the ratio 10 : 1?
(1) 9 times (2) 10 times (3) 12 times (4) 11 times
5. Saddam gets the dent in container A removed. He also gets the faucet in container B refixed so that all the water filled into B can be used. He keeps filling B from A everytime B gets emptied. After he pours out water from A into B the last time (i.e., A gets emptied), what percentage of B is empty? The ratio of the rated capacities of A and B is 7.5 : 1?
(1) 0% (2) 331/3% (3) 25% (4) 50%
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: These questions are based on the following data.
Amar, Akbar and Anthony sold their three cycles manufactured in different years to Mr.Kishanlal. Mr.Kishanlal gave a total of Rs.1700 to the three and said that Amar should get about one-half of the total amount as his cycle was used less. Akbar’s cycle being used more than Amar’s, he should get about one-third of the total amount and the last one gets about one-ninth. Each individual gets his amount only in denominations of Rs.100.
6. What is the difference between the amounts received by Amar and Anthony?
(1) Rs.900 (2) Rs.700 (3) Rs.800 (4) Rs.600
7. The amount that Amar has is how much more than what Akbar and Anthony together have?
(1) Rs.200 (2) Rs.300 (3) Rs.100 (4) Rs.400
Directions for questions 8 to 12: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
8. A, B and C start running simultaneously from the points P, Q and R respectively on a circular track. The distance (when measured along the track) between any two of the three points P, Q and R is L and the ratio of the speeds of A, B and C is 1 : 2 : 3. If A and B run in opposite directions while B and C run in the same direction, what is the distance run by C before A , B and C meet for the first time?
(1)10/3L (2)11/3 L
(3) All three of them will never meet. (4) Cannot be determined
9. A circle of radius 1cm circumscribes a square. A dart is thrown such that it falls within the circle. What is the
probability that it falls outside the square?
(1) 1/2π (2) (2π - 1) /2π (3) (π - 1) /π (4) (π - 2) /π
10. Fifteen boys went to collect berries and returned with a total of 80 berries among themselves. What is the minimum number of pairs of boys that must have collected the same number of berries?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
11. A cube of edge 12 ft is placed on the floor with one of its faces touching a wall. A ladder of length 35 ft is resting against that wall and is touching an edge of the cube. Find the height at which the top end of the ladder touches the wall, given that it is more than the distance of the foot of the ladder from the wall?
(1) 11 ft (2) 23 ft (3) 21 ft (4) 28 ft
12. Two circles touch each other externally. One of the circles is 300% more in area than the other. If A is the centre of the larger circle and BC is the diameter of the smaller circle and either AB or AC is a tangent to the smaller circle, then find the ratio of the area of the triangle ABC to that of the smaller circle?
(1) 2 : π (2) 3 : π (3) 2 2 : π (4) π : 42
DIRECTIONS for questions 13 and 14: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
13. a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5 are five natural numbers. Find the number of ordered sets (a1, a2, a3, a4, a5) possible such that a1 +a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 = 64.
(1) 64C5 (2) 63C4 (3) 65C4 (4) None of these
14. In the above question if a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5 are non-negative integers then find the number of ordered sets (a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5) that are possible.
(1) 64C5 (2) 63C4 (3) 68C4 (4) None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 17: Each question gives certain information followed by two quantities A and B.
Compare A and B, and then
Mark 1 if A > B
Mark 2 if B > A
Mark 3 if A = B
Mark 4 if the relationship cannot be determined from the given data.
15. A baker had a certain number of boxes and a certain number of cakes with him. Initially he distributed all the cakes equally among all the boxes and found that there was no cake left without a box. He later found that he had one more box with him and so he redistributed all the cakes equally among all the boxes and found that there was one cake less per box than initially and one cake was left without a box with the baker.
A. The number of cakes per box in the first case.
B. The total number of boxes with the baker.
16. A trader gives a discount of r% and still makes a profit of r%. A second trader marks up his goods by r% and gives a discount of r%.
A. The cost price of the first trader.
B. The cost price of the second trader.
17. A piece of work is carried out by a group of men, all of equal capacity, in such a way that on the first day one man works and on every subsequent day one additional man joins the work. A group of women, all of equal capacity is engaged to carry out a second piece of work with ten women starting the work on the first day and one woman leaving the work at the end of everyday. The second piece of work is thrice as time consuming as the first piece of work while each man is thrice as efficient as each woman. It is known that one man working alone can complete the first piece of work in 6 days.
A. Number of days in which the first piece of work is completed.
B. Number of days in which the second piece of work is completed.
DIRECTIONS for questions 18 and 19: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
18. A number when divided by a certain divisor, left a remainder of 8. When the same number was multiplied by 12 and then divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 12. How many such divisors are possible?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
19. Consider the equation x² + y² + z² = 1. Let (x1, y1, z1) and (x2, y2, z2) be two sets of values of (x, y, z) satisfying the given equation and let A = (x1 – x2)² + (y1 – y2) ² + (z1 – z2)². What is the maximum possible value that A can assume?(assume that all the quantities involved are real numbers)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
Note Answers of Above Quant Injection are here
PARALLELOGRAM - 2 sets of parallel sides
- 2 sets of congruent sides
- opposite angles congruent
- consecutive angles supplementary
- diagonals bisect each other
- diagonals form 2 congruent triangles
RECTANGLE -properties of the parallelogram PLUS
- 4 right angles
- diagonals congruent
RHOMBUS - properties of the parallelogram PLUS
- 4 congruent sides
- diagonals bisect angles
- diagonals perpendicular
SQUARE -All properties of IIgm ,rectangle and square
- 2 sets of parallel sides
- 2 sets of congruent sides
- opposite angles congruent
- consecutive angles supplementary
- diagonals bisect each other
- diagonals form 2 congruent triangles
- 4 right angles
- diagonals congruent
- 4 congruent sides
- diagonals bisect angles
- diagonals perpendicular
- Two lines are said to be parallel only when their point of intersection is/are :
- In a triangle, interior opposite angle is always less than : the exterior angle
- Sum of the 2 interior opposite angles of a triangle is always equal to :
- Sum of all the interior angles of a pentagon is equal to : 540
- In a triangle, the sum of the 2 angles is equal to the third angle, considering
interior angles only, then the triangle is : right angled
- Sum of the interior angles of a polygon having n sides is equal to : (2n-4)90
- 2 Sides of a triangle are unequal. the angle just opposite to the larger side
is : greater than the angle opposite the smaller side
- The angle made by the altitude of a triangle with the side on which it is
drawn is equal to : 90 degrees
- One angle of a triangle is greater than the other. the side opposite to it is :
greater than the side opposite to the other
- Sum of squares on 2 perpendicular sides of a right angled triangle is equal
to the square on the : hypotenuse
- In a parallelogram, the opposite angles are : equal
- A regular hexagon has been inscribed in a circle. the area of the hexagon
will be: less than the area of the circle.
- When the bisector of any angle is perpendicular to the opposite side, then
the triangle is : equilateral
- If 2 || lines are intersected by a traversal, then the bisectors of the interior
angels so formed make a : rectangle
- Each angle of a complementary set of angles must be : acute
- Number of pairs of vertical angles formed when 2 lines intersect are : 2
- If the bisectors of 2 adjacent angles are perpendicular, the adjacent angles
are the angles of : linear pair
- The triangle formed by joining the mid points of the sides of an equilateral
triangle is : equilateral
- The bisectors of the angle at the vertex of an isosceles triangle: bisects the
base and is perpendicular to it
- If 2 angles of a triangle are congruent, the sides opposite of these angles
are : congruent
- If the bisector of any angle of a triangle bisects its opposite side, the
triangle is : isosceles
- The correct postulate of congruence of 2 triangles is : SAS
- The straight line joining the midpoints of any 2 sides of a triangle is : parallel
to the third side
- If the bisector of the vertical angle bisects the base, the triangle is :
- The point of intersection of the medians of the triangle is called : centroid
- The point of intersection of the altitudes of the triangle is called :
- In a triangle abc, if the median BE is equal to the median CF, then the
triangle is : isosceles
- In a triangle ABC, if altitude BE is equal to the altitude CF, then the triangle
is : isosceles
- The angle between the internal bisector of one base angle and the exterior
bisector of the other base angle is equal to : one half the vertical angle
- The bisector of the exterior angle at the vertex of an isosceles triangle is :
parallel to the base
- The straight line drawn from the midpoint of a side of a triangle, parallel to
the base is one that : bisects the other side
- The median on the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is equal to : nothing
can be said
- In an isosceles triangle ABC, d,e,f are the midpoints of the base BC and
the equal sides AB, AC resp. , then : DF=DE
- Medians of a triangle pass thru the same point which divides each median
in the ratio : 2:1
- The sum of 2 medians of triangle is : greater than the third
- A median divides a triangle into 2 triangles of : equal area
- A triangle can have at most one : obtuse angle
- If the diagonal of a quadrilateral bisect each other and are perpendicular, the quadrilateral is : rhombus
- The bisector of a pair of opposite angles of a 11gm are : intersecting at a point
- If diagonals AC = diagonal BD and AC is perpendicular to BD in a parallelogram ABCD then it is : rhombus
- Area of s rectangle and area of || gm standing on the same base and b/w the same || have relation b/w them as : they are equal
- If the midpoints of the sides of a quadrilateral are joined, then the figure formed is : ||gm
- If the diagonals of a || are equal then its a : rectangle
- A diagonal of a |\gm divides it into : 4 triangles of equal area
- In a triangle ABC, the median AD bisecting the side BC has its midpoint O.
the line CO meets AB at E. AE is equal to : AB/3
- If a line is drawn || to 1 side of a triangle, the other 2 sides are divided : in
the same ratio
- If the diagonals of a ||gm are equal, its a : rectangle
- AAA theorem is applicable for 2 triangles to prove them : similar
- The ratios of areas of similar triangles is equal to the ratio of : squares on
the corresponding sides
- If 2 chords of a circle intersect inside or outside a circle, the rectangle
contained by the parts of 1 chord is equal in area to the rectangle contained
by : the parts of the other
- If the perpendicular drawn from the vertex of a right angled triangle to the
hypotenuse, the number of similar triangles formed is equal to : 3
- In triangle abc, ad is perpendicular to bc. if ad^2 = bd*dc, the triangle is :
- In a ||gm abcd, e is a pt on ad. ac and be intersect each other at f. then:
- p and q are 2 pts on the sides ca and cb of a triangle abc, right angled at c.
then aq^2 + bp^2 is equal to : ab^2 + pq^2
- Equal chords of a circle subtends equal angles at the : center
- Angles in the same segment of a circle are : equal
- 2 Equal circles intersect in a and b. through b is a straight line perpendicular
to ab drawn to meet the circumference in x and y. then : ax=ay
- p is the centre of a circle of radius r and distance b/w the centre of the
circle and any point r on a given line pr. the line doesn’t intersect the circle
when : pr>r
- Chord pq of a circle is produced to o. t is a pt such that ot becomes a tangent to the circle. then : ot^2=op*oq
- p is the midpoint of an arc apb of a circle. the tangent at p is : parallel to the chord ab.
- An angle with vertex on the circle formed by secant ray and a tangent ray has measure equal to : half the measure of the angle subtended by the intercepted arc at the centre
Wednesday, June 10, 2009
If you think that your prparation for CAT in verbal Ability part is not enough or you cannot compete with others in verbal ability then I would suggest you to go for GMAT verbal. Believe me guys, GMAT verbal is awesome and is of far more superior quality than CAT. So, for your covenience I have collected a lot of GMAT material, which covers all the parts of verbal ability of CAT. So what are you waiting for? Just go and get it. If you like the material then do ask me for more material. I have still a lot of material left.
I have got some sectional papers. These papers contain questions on Quantitative Ability, Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation, Reading Comprehension etc. and all of thyem are separate tests. Answers are also given below the tests.
These tests are like CBT in which you have to fill the circle(Just click in the circle) like any other online test. These tests contain very good quality of questions so these papers are must try papers. I have uploaded them so get the link below and download all the papers.
In this article we will be discussing the top 5 DONOTs for CAT 2009..
Do not forget about time
As we have always emphasized, CAT is all about time. A typical CAT paper is not difficult in itself, and can be solved by a 12th grade student. But solving it in the allotted time is the challenge. Always keep in mind that the one who manages the time efficiently is the winner. So it is important to start allocating proper time to your sectional preparations right from the start. Try to allocate a specific time for your set of questions, and try to solve them. You will understand how fast, or how slow you are. Try to adjust the level of difficulty and variety of questions and the time allocated also. For example, take 30 random algebra questions and try solving them in 25 minutes. And then do a thorough analysis. Do not take extra time. Count the number of questions you attempted, and were wrong. Also count the number of questions you could not attempt, and were sitters. Note down your performance, and your weak areas. Analyzing on these points will make your strategy work during the actual CAT. So instead of putting too much emphasis on getting the problem right, put more emphasis on getting the problem right in the right amount of time.
Do not just concentrate on the section you are good at
This is another mistake that most people do. We have seen people who just concentrate on the section they are good at. This might increase your percentile in that particular section, but will not help in getting you a MBA seat, especially in the IIMs. Most MBA institutes require that you clear the cut-off in all sections. If you are good in Quants, it may feel good to prepare and practice just Quants on and on. But the truth is, you might just lose the time you require in other sections. And in fact, if you are good in a particular section, you might need less practice in that section than others. So, go ahead and adjust your timetable according to this. Find out the sections, areas you are weak in, and invest more time in that. It may be difficult to concentrate more on RC, for example, if you are not good at it, but with regular practice you could do it. Keep taking sectional and/or full length tests in between, and you will find the difference in scores, and then you will feel good and confident.
Do not go for Quantity, but Quality
Many aspirants believe, solving a lot of problems will help in cracking CAT. This may be true to a certain extent but not always. There are a lot of materials and question-banks available now-a-days. However, simply exposing yourself to all sorts of problems is not enough; you have to actually study the problems, and this may mean doing fewer problems. You are not done with a problem when you get it right. You should spend twice as long reviewing a problem as you spend doing it, whether or not you got it correct. As a part of your review, ask yourself whether you identified the topics being tested. Did you do answer the question in the most efficient way? Was there another approach you could have taken? Does the problem or any of the concepts remind you of other problems you've seen? The goal is to find a lesson in each question and be able to apply those lessons to the next group of problems you do.Also this helps in keeping track of areas you are poor or strong in. Try to find a pattern in the way you solve problems. And then improve on the weak areas, instead of just solving a number of problems.
Do not just rely on mock tests.
If you take a practice test a day for six weeks, you might think you will be well prepared. This might be true for a few but not for most people. Practice tests are helpful to gauge your timings, and to test your speed and accuracy. But they are not sufficient. You need to clear your basics first, work hard on each subject and then take a leap towards mock tests. If you are not good at basics, you might score badly in your mock tests, and it might hurt your confidence. So do not make mock tests your primary tool. Best thing to do is to keep the mock tests for the last 6 weeks before CAT. Before that, concentrate on sectional tests, and more importantly on each chapter/module you prepare.
Do not slog, be methodical.
Studying all night just before the test might have helped you in college, but not in CAT. Studying for long periods of time is not effective preparation for CAT. Rather, you should pace yourself. Be systematic, and methodical. Give yourself a good amount of time to prepare for the test, working about three-four hours a day (and more on weekends, and when you are not working). Concentrate equally on all sections. Do a set of problems for an hour and spend the next hour reviewing those. Take a stretch break, come back, and do another set of problems. Review them again and then call it a day. Longer work sessions lead to diminishing returns, a concept that all business schools care about. Do not forget to test yourself on 10 AM of everyday if possible, because cracking CAT means you are 100% awake at that time.
Friday, June 5, 2009
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. E 8. B 9. 10.
1. E 2. E 3. D 4. E 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D 10.
The majority of successful senior managers do not closely follow the classical rational model of first clarifying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options, estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision, and only then taking action to implement the decision. Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed “intuition” to manage a network of interrelated problems that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency, novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the process of thinking.
Generations of writers on management have recognized that some practicing managers rely heavily on intuition. In general, however, such writers display a poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the opposite of rationality; others view it as an excuse for capriciousness.
Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intuition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly. This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experience that build skills. A third function of intuition is to synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth, some managers use intuition as a check on the results of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are familiar with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and those who use such systematic methods for reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions suggested by these methods which run counter to their sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns. One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from acting. Since managers often “know” what is right before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers develop thoughts about their companies and organizations not by analyzing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
Given the great uncertainty of many of the management issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a course of action simply to learn more about an issue. They then use the results of the action to develop a more complete understanding of the issue. One implication of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often part of defining the problem, not just of implementing the solution.
1. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(A) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem
(B) identify a problem
(C) bring together disparate facts
(D) stipulate clear goals
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem
2. The passage suggests which of the following about the “writers on management” mentioned in line 12?
(A) They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(B) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently large sample of actual managers.
(C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on what managers say rather than on what managers do.
(D) They have misunderstood how managers use intuition in making business decisions.
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in managerial practice.
3. Which of the following best exemplifies “an ‘Aha!’ experience” (line 28) as it is presented in the passage?
(A) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is unpredictable to discover whether the action changes the problem at hand.
(B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem.
(C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to the problem at hand.
(D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.
(E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of tactics to implement in order to deal with the contingencies suggested by a problem.
4. According to the passage, the classical model of decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation of a problem
(B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the decision
(D) action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem
(E) comparison of the probable effects of different solutions to a problem
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be one major difference in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal decision analysis?
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not.
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.
(E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical maneuvering; manager X does not.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that “thinking/acting cycles” (line 45) in managerial practice would be likely to result in which of the following?
I. A manager analyzes a network of problems and then acts on the basis of that analysis.
II. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the effects of action.
III. A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
7. The passage provides support for which of the following statements?
(A) Managers who rely on intuition are more successful than those who rely on formal decision analysis.
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
(C) Managers’ intuition works contrary to their rational and analytical skills.
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical experience more efficiently.
8. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of the passage?
(A) An assertion is made and a specific supporting example is given.
(B) A conventional model is dismissed and an alternative introduced.
(C) The results of recent research are introduced and summarized.
(D) Two opposing points of view are presented and evaluated.
(E) A widely accepted definition is presented and qualified.
Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of different ways. Later biologists found that the situation was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used by the early investigators, it will not form two whole embryos.
A debate arose over what exactly was happening. Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what are the “morphogenetic determinants” that tell a cell what to become? But the debate could not be resolved because no one was able to ask the crucial questions in a form in which they could be pursued productively. Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate. Now investigators think they know at least some of the molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in early development. They have been able to show that, in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function as morphogenetic determinants. They are located in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the cell’s protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized, the substances become active and, presumably, govern the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different from the start and so can be qualitatively different in their own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal messenger RNA’s—products of certain of the maternal genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resembles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded DNA strings that guide the fate of the cells in which they are located.
1. The passage is most probably directed at which kind of audience?
(A) State legislators deciding about funding levels for a state-funded biological laboratory
(B) Scientists specializing in molecular genetics
(C) Readers of an alumni newsletter published by the college that Paul Gross attended
(D) Marine biologists studying the processes that give rise to new species
(E) Undergraduate biology majors in a molecular biology course
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally
(C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg
(E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual
3. The main topic of the passage is
(A) the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms
(B) the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology
(C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic development
(D) cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic development
(E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of molecular
4. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they made which of the following mistakes?
(A) They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
(B) They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of the separation experiment.
(C) They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species used for such experiments.
(D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo’s life.
(E) They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the fate of the two parts was concerned.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes place
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNA’s
(B) Synthesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell’s potential for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell’s morphogenetic determinants
7. According to the passage, the morphogenetic determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are which of the following?
(A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
(C) Maternal messenger RNA’s
(E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA
8. The passage suggests that which of the following plays a role in determining whether an embryo separated into two parts will develop as two normal embryos?
I. The stage in the embryo’s life at which the separation occurs
II. The instrument with which the separations is accomplished
III. The plane in which the cut is made that separates the embryo
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
9. Which of the following circumstances is most comparable to the impasse biologists encountered in trying to resolve the debate about cell determination (lines 12-18)?
(A) The problems faced by a literary scholar who wishes to use original source materials that are written in an unfamiliar foreign language
(B) The situation of a mathematician who in preparing a proof of a theorem for publication detects a reasoning error in the proof
(C) The difficulties of a space engineer who has to design equipment to function in an environment in which it cannot first be tested
(D) The predicament of a linguist trying to develop a theory of language acquisition when knowledge of the structure of language itself is rudimentary at best
(E) The dilemma confronting a foundation when the funds available to it are sufficient to support one of two equally deserving scientific projects but not both
Answers of these passages
divisible by 11. When I subtract Nikhil’s age from the car number, I get 1962, the year my daughter
Lata was born. What is the number on my car?
Give answers of both questions and you could win a pack of 100 data sufficiency questions.
In order to keep you practising daily I have decided to launch Problem of the day series. it will include one or two problems daily related to the core subjects of all MBA entrance exams i.e Quantitative Ability, Data Sufficiency, Verbal Ability, Logical Reasoning etc. So here I present Problem of the day in Quantitative
Aptitude. Solve it and submit your answers as soon as possible because you may win 100 questions of Data Sufficiency. So carry on.
In traveling from a dormitory to a certain city, a student went 1/5 of the way by foot, 2/3 of the way by bus, and the remaining 8 kilometers by car. What is the distance, in kilometers, from the dormitory to the city?
Thursday, June 4, 2009
As we know that Logical Reasoning is very important subject in Mba Entrance Exams. In each exam you will find some questions based on reasoning. So I collected some questions based on reasoning. So start solving the questions and post your answers in comment. Then I shall check your answers and tell you the correct answers.
1. Mr. Janeck: I don’t believe Stevenson will win the election for governor. Few voters are willing to elect a businessman with no political experience to such a responsible public office.
Ms. Siuzdak: You’re wrong. The experience of running a major corporation is a valuable preparation for the task of running a state government.
M. Siuzdak’s response shows that she has interpreted Mr. Janeck’s remark to imply which of the following?
(A) Mr. Janeck considers Stevenson unqualified for the office of governor.
(B) No candidate without political experience has ever been elected governor of a state.
(C) Mr. Janeck believes that political leadership and business leadership are closely analogous.
(D) A career spent in the pursuit of profit can be an impediment to one’s ability to run a state government fairly.
(E) Voters generally overestimate the value of political experience when selecting a candidate.
2. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
One tax-reform proposal that has gained increasing support in recent years is the flat tax, which would impose a uniform tax rate on incomes at every level. Opponents of the flat tax say that a progressive tax system, which levies a higher rate of taxes on higher-income taxpayers, is fairer, placing the greater burden on those better able to bear it. However, the present crazy quilt of tax deductions, exemptions, credits, and loopholes benefits primarily the high-income taxpayer, who is consequently able to reduce his or her effective tax rate, often to a level below that paid by the lower-income taxpayer. Therefore, ______
(A) higher-income taxpayers are likely to lend their support to the flat-tax proposal now being considered by Congress
(B) a flat-tax system that allowed no deductions or exemptions would substantially increase actual government revenues
(C) the lower-income taxpayer might well be penalized by the institution of a flat-tax system in this country
(D) the progressive nature of our present tax system is more illusory than real
(E) the flat tax would actually be fairer to the lower-income taxpayer than any progressive tax system could be
3. As part of our program to halt the influx of illegal immigrants, the administration is proposing the creation of a national identity card. The card would be available only to U.S. citizens and to registered aliens, and all persons would be required to produce the card before they could be given a job. Of course, such a system holds the potential, however slight, for the abuse of civil liberties. Therefore, all personal information gathered through this system would be held strictly confidential, to be released only by authorized personnel under appropriate circumstances. Those who are in compliance with U.S. laws would have nothing to fear from the identity card system.
In evaluating the above proposal, a person concerned about the misuse of confidential information would be most interested in having the author clarify the meaning of which of the following phrases?
(A) “all persons” (line 5)
(B) “however slight” (line 7)
(C) “civil liberties” (line 8)
(D) “appropriate circumstances” (line 11)
(E) “U.S. laws” (line 2)
4. At one time, European and Japanese companies tried to imitate their American rivals. Today, American appliance manufacturers import European scientists to lead their research staffs; American automakers design cars that mimic the styling of German, Italian, and French imports; and American electronics firms boast in their advertising of “Japanese-style” devotion to quality and reliability. In the world of high technology, America has lost the battle for international prestige.
Each of the following statements, if true, would help to support the claim above EXCEPT:
(A) An American camera company claims in its promotional literature to produce cameras “as fine as the best Swiss imports.”
(B) An American maker of stereo components designs its products to resemble those of a popular Japanese firm.
(C) An American manufacturer of video games uses a brand name chosen because it sounds like a Japanese word.
(D) An American maker of televisions studies German-made televisions in order to adopt German manufacturing techniques.
(E) An American maker of frozen foods advertises its dinners as “Real European-style entrees prepared by fine French and Italian chefs.”
5. Johnson is on firm ground when he asserts that the early editors of Dickinson’s poetry often distorted her intentions. Yet Johnson’s own, more faithful, text is still guilty of its own forms of distortion. To standardize Dickinson’s often indecipherable handwritten punctuation by the use of the dash is to render permanent a casual mode of poetic phrasing that Dickinson surely never expected to see in print. It implies that Dickinson chose the dash as her typical mark of punctuation when, in fact, she apparently never made any definitive choice at all.
Which of the following best summarizes the author’s main point?
(A) Although Johnson is right in criticizing Dickinson’s early editors for their distortion of her work, his own text is guilty of equally serious distortions.
(B) Johnson’s use of the dash in his text of Dickinson’s poetry misleads readers about the poet’s intentions.
(C) Because Dickinson never expected her poetry to be published, virtually any attempt at editing it must run counter to her intentions.
(D) Although Johnson’s attempt to produce a more faithful text of Dickinson’s poetry is well-meaning, his study of the material lacks sufficient thoroughness.
(E) Dickinson’s editors, including Johnson, have failed to deal adequately with the problem of deciphering Dickinson’s handwritten manuscripts.
6. A law requiring companies to offer employees unpaid time off to care for their children will harm the economic competitiveness of our nation’s businesses. Companies must be free to set their own employment policies without mandated parental-leave regulations.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion of the argument above?
(A) A parental-leave law will serve to strengthen the family as a social institution in this country.
(B) Many businesses in this country already offer employees some form of parental leave.
(C) Some of the countries with the most economically competitive businesses have strong parental-leave regulations.
(D) Only companies with one hundred or more employees would be subject to the proposed parental-leave law.
(E) In most polls, a majority of citizens say they favor passage of a parental-leave law.
7. If A, then B.
If B, then C.
If C, then D.
If all of the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
(A) If D, then A.
(B) If not B, then not C.
(C) If not D, then not A.
(D) If D, then E.
(E) If not A, then not D.
8. Dear Applicant:
Thank you for your application. Unfortunately, we are unable to offer you a position in our local government office for the summer. As you know, funding for summer jobs is limited, and it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them. Consequently, we are forced to reject many highly qualified applicants.
Which of the following can be inferred from the letter?
(A) The number of applicants for summer jobs in the government office exceeded the number of summer jobs available.
(B) The applicant who received the letter was considered highly qualified.
(C) Very little funding was available for summer jobs in the government office.
(D) The application of the person who received the letter was considered carefully before being rejected.
(E) Most of those who applied for summer jobs were considered qualified for the available positions.
9. Studies of fatal automobile accidents reveal that, in the majority of cases in which one occupant of an automobile is killed while another survives, it is the passenger, not the driver, who is killed. It is ironic that the innocent passenger should suffer for the driver’s carelessness, while the driver often suffers only minor injuries or none at all.
Which of the following is an assumption underlying the reasoning in the passage above?
(A) In most fatal automobile accidents, the driver of a car in which an occupant is killed is at fault.
(B) Drivers of automobiles are rarely killed in auto accidents.
(C) Most deaths in fatal automobile accidents are suffered by occupants of cars rather than by pedestrians.
(D) Auto safety experts should increase their efforts to provide protection for those in the passenger seats of automobiles.
(E) Automobile passengers sometimes play a contributing role in causing auto accidents.
Questions 10-11 are based on the following
As one who has always believed that truth is our nation’s surest weapon in the propaganda war against our foes, I am distressed by reports of “disinformation” campaigns by American intelligence agents in Western Europe. In a disinformation campaign, untruths are disseminated through gullible local journalists in order to damage the interests of our enemies and protect our own. Those who defend this practice say that lying is necessary to counter Soviet disinformation campaigns aimed at damaging America’s political interests. These apologists contend that one must fight fire with fire. I would point out to the apologists that the fire department finds water more effective.
10. The author of the passage above bases his conclusion on which of the following?
(A) A circular definition of “disinformation”
(B) An example of the ineffectiveness of lying as a weapon in the propaganda war
(C) An analogy between truth and water
(D) An appeal to the authority of the fire department
(E) An attack on the character of American intelligence agents in Western Europe
11. The author’s main point is that
(A) although disinformation campaigns may be effective, they are unacceptable on ethical grounds
(B) America’s moral standing in the world depends on its adherence to the truth
(C) the temporary political gains produced by disinformation campaigns generally give way to long-term losses
(D) Soviet disinformation campaigns have done little to damage America’s standing in Europe
(E) disinformation campaigns do not effectively serve the political interests of the United States
12. Are you still reading the other newspaper in town? Did you know that the Daily Bugle is owned by an out-of-town business syndicate that couldn’t care less about the people of Gotham City? Read the Daily Clarion, the only real voice of the people of Gotham City!
Which of the following most directly refutes the argument raised in the advertisement above?
(A) Over half of the advertising revenues of the Daily Clarion come from firms whose headquarters are located outside of Gotham City.
(B) The Daily Clarion usually devotes more of its pages to out-of-town news than does the Daily Bugle.
(C) Nearly 40 percent of the readers of the Daily Clarion reside outside the limits of Gotham City.
(D) The editor-in-chief and all the other members of the editorial staff of the Daily Bugle have lived and worked in Gotham City for ten years or more.
(E) The Daily Bugle has been published in Gotham City for a longer time than has the Daily Clarion.
Questions 13-14 are based on the following.
The earth’s resources are being depleted much too fast. To correct this, the United States must keep its resource consumption at present levels for many years to come.
13. The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Per capita resource consumption in the United States is at an all-time high.
(B) The United States wastes resources.
(C) The United States uses more resources than any other country.
(D) The United States imports most of the resources it uses.
(E) Curbing U.S. resource consumption will significantly retard world resource depletion.
14. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above?
(A) New resource deposits are constantly being discovered.
(B) The United States consumes one-third of all resources used in the world.
(C) Other countries need economic development more than the United States does.
(D) Other countries have agreed to hold their resource consumption at present levels.
(E) The United States has been conserving resources for several years.
15. Alba: I don’t intend to vote for Senator Frank in the next election. She is not a strong supporter of the war against crime.
Tam: But Senator Frank sponsored the latest anticrime law passed by the Senate.
Alba: If Senator Frank sponsored it, it can’t be a very strong anticrime law.
Which of the following identifies the most serious logical flaw in Alba’s reasoning?
(A) The facts she presents do not support her conclusion that Senator Frank is soft on crime.
(B) She assumes without proof that crime is the most important issue in the upcoming election.
(C) She argues in a circle, using an unsupported assertion to dismiss conflicting evidence.
(D) She attacks Senator Frank on personal grounds rather than on he merit as a political leader.
(E) In deciding not to vote for Senator Frank, she fails to consider issues other than crime
Tuesday, June 2, 2009
In the Verbal Ability section the language is not difficult; the questions have become more reasoning based.
Now, we need to think logically rather than mechanically.
Strategies to tackle RC:
Regarding RC, the mantra is, 'catch the main argument of the passage.'
There is no doubt that RC is time-consuming. However, it is not always so if a student is well aware of proper strategy and technique. While skimming, simultaneously go through the questions. At times, you will come across a question that is linked to something you just read in the previous paragraph.
The underlining process relieves you from storing or memorizing everything you read. After reading the questions, you can go back to the passage, refer to the underlined areas and mark the correct answer.
You can also take the help of transitional key words, such as Moreover, Besides, Furthermore, that support the passage or the author's view. Words such as However, Although, But, on the other hand, are against the flow.
Finally, words like Hence, Thus, and Therefore are conclusions, and can be easily spotted in the final paragraphs or at the end of the passage. To prevent confusion, it is better to encircle these words so as to locate them easily when referring to the passage.
The test-makers also use language traps that can hurt your score. For example, a period of two years mentioned in the passage is referred to as 24 months in the question; or, the passage mentions a distance in miles while the question uses kilometres. So stay alert and keep a hawk's eye for these traps.
While taking the CAT, do not try to attempt every RC question, particularly if you are not sure of the answer, since this will attract negative marking and hurt your score.
If there are a number of RC passages and students can afford to skip some passages and/or questions, the best way for average students to complete the RC section is by using one of two strategies -- Some Questions from All Passages (SQAP) and All Questions from Some Passages (AQSP). With SQAP, you should not attempt questions with options such as None of these, All of these, Except, Least Agree, Least Disagree, True and Not True. These are the most difficult RC questions and should be avoided in the first round.
Instead, answer the direct questions that, most of the time, are given in inverted commas. After answering all the direct questions in a passage, move on to the next one. In case you find passages that give only direct and specific information questions, you can immediately change your strategy and go for 'All Questions from
Some Passages' (AQSP). With this strategy, you answer all the questions from the passages with direct questions, while avoiding the passages that have the most indirect questions.
For answering inference based questions, PROCESS OF ELIMINATION is the best strategy; remember any direct statement given in the options is never an answer for inference based questions.
Following these tips will help you earn the top possible marks and avoid a lot of stress.
Strategies to tackle some other Verbal Ability questions:
Directions for questions 1 – 3: Rearrange statements A to D in coherent order.
1. 1. Early in the 1970s we thought of the idea of satellite communication in order to spread
A. The IIM, Kozhikode, Kerala, launched the Interactive Distance Education Programme in 2002.
B. Using satellite based infrastructure it delivers real time live education to all participants by high
quality video/audio and data delivered multimedia mode.
C. This was one of the largest experiments of its kind in the world using a satellite.
D. The Satellite Instructional Television Programme was transmitted through an American satellite ATS – F launched by NASA.
6. Specific management courses would be simultaneously transmitted to several centres in India from a classroom in Calicut, with the help of telecommunication and satellite television
(1) DBCA (2) DCAB (3) ACDB (4) BACD
Sol. Look for pairs DC & AB. The combination is present in the 2nd option only. Many a time options play a vital role in such cases.
2. 1. “Too often,” as Bergson has said, “when philosophy faces the problems of the origin, nature, and destiny of man, it bypasses them in order to deal with questions which it regards as prior, and upon which the solutions of the more pressing problems are said to depend.
A. Before searching for the solution of anything, we are told that we must know exactly what it is to search.
B. Whence do we come? What are we? Whither do we go?
C. Study the mechanism of your thinking apparatus, analyze your knowledge, and criticize your criticism of it.
D. Those are the vital issues which we would face at once if we philosophized without bothering about the traditional philosophic systems. But an over-systematic philosophy interposes a whole host of other problems between those issues and ourselves.
6. Once you have assured yourself of the worth of the instrument, then you will see how to use it properly. But alas, that moment never comes.”
(1) ABCD (2) ACDB (3) CBAD (4) BDAC
Sol. Read the statements carefully and go through the options. B D makes a pair and so is AC.
Option 4 has both.
3. A. In use, the company says that the FIT format uses only a single image file for both thumbnail and full-size image creations and supports spatial scaling of displayed images and a variety of colour models.
B. File Flow has developed, what the company claims, a new ultra - efficient file compression system for the transmission of digital camera files, as well as for use in desktop publishing and document flow systems.
C. The Norwegian firm's technology is based around Java and allows massive file compression. The company says that a typical 37 megabyte (MB) file image will compress down to just 600 kilobytes (KB) using its system, allowing the file to transfer in under two minutes across a 56 kilobits-per-second (K-bps) modem connection.
D. File Flow says its compression technology is the result of more than 10 years of academic research to develop the ultimate still-image compression format. Using the fast image transfer (FIT) format, the firm, produces significantly smaller file sizes than the equivalent JPEG (Joint photographic experts group) file - requiring significantly less disk space, dramatically reducing download time, bandwidth cost and server loads.
(1) ABCD (2) DBCA (3) BCDA (4) BACD
Sol. The best clue is statement-D; it speaks of FIT. A follows, beginning with “in use”. Now look for the option that has the combination. Option (3) only.
One of the best ways to solve such questions is to treat them as a story or something which is being communicated to others. You will realize what comes first and the next as well
FIILING THE PARENTHESIS
Direction for questions 4 – 5: For the following questions, select the option that best replaces the parenthesis in the given paragraph.
To answer questions such as “Select the option that best replaces the parenthesis in the given paragraph”, check the tone of the passage. If it starts with positive note and towards the end the theme remains unchanged, look for the option that is positive. Starting with positive ends negative, choose the option that is
a contrast. Here are some examples for your practice.
4. Addressing media persons here, he said that the obstacles often highlighted for lack of growth in trade are not strong enough to justify the lack of initiative. To support his argument, he cited the example of China which now has booming trade with Brazil (.) even though the language problem and distance factor applies equally to the Chinese also, Mr. Scares noted. Calling for steps to boost trade and
business ties, the ambassador said that Brazil was keen to forge strong links with Asia.
(1) China does not want to encourage relations with Brazil.
(2) Brazil is not willing to enter into a trade agreement with China.
(3) China and Brazil are based on the same ground of cultural ethos.
(4) China and Brazil are even building a satellite jointly.
Sol. Options (1) & (2) are against the flow of the passage; (3) speaks of a common problem; whereas the passage is based on upcoming relations between China and Brazil. Hence (4) is the correct option.
5. After all, the strategic $40 million deal with Parle Exports has given the company instant ownership of the nation's top soft drink brands like ThumsUp, Limca, Citra, Gold Spot and Maaza and also access to Parley’s extensive 54 plant bottling network and a base for the rapid introduction of the company’s international brands(.) And the recent decision of Ramesh Chauhan to sell out his bottling operations to Coke was all but a boost to the multinational's operations in India.
(1) The Thums Up plant however is not very lucrative.
(2) But the competition in the soft drink industry is cut throat.
(3) The network of independently owned bottles was and is India's largest soft drink bottling system.
(4) Pepsi is arch rival for Coke.
Sol. The passage speaks of the positive aspects. Option (1) & (2) are negative choices. Competition is nowhere mentioned. Hence (3) is the best choice.
The above mentioned can be easily done by the process of elimination. When two choices are very close negate the one that repeats the statement as given in the passage or gives half the information.
To solve “Concluding assertion, support, irrelevant and counter argument questions” the best strategy is to go via options. Here is an example.
6. A. The lion depends on stealth rather than speed to catch the prey.
B. A lion cannot maintain a high speed for longer durations.
C. All the prey species can easily outrun the massive lion.
D. The jungle has its own rules.
(1) BADC (2) CBAD (3) BABC (4) ABCD
Sol. Its is very much clear that statement D is not at all related with the argument and that negates
options (2) & (3), the choice is between (1) & (2). Next clue is statement A & C both supporting B, hence
option (3) is the answer.
Directions for question 7: The question consists of a CAPITALISED word followed by four possible illustrations of the meaning. Choose the one, which is the most suitable illustration.
(1) People voicing uncalled for suggestions regarding the way a company is to be run.
(2) A man strongly advocating the malfeasance administered during school days.
(3) An umpire deciding the proceedings in a cricket match.
(4) An autocrat dictating his terms in an authoritarian regime.
Sol. Answer: (3)
For such questions you need to understand the usage of the word given. Words can be used in many ways. At times all four seem to be correct. The best way to solve is to be aware of the dictionary meaning and also synonyms
Direction for question 8: Find the statement where the given word hasn’t been used correctly.
(1) Absenteeism is a problem at some schools.
(2) His absentist nature showed that he wasn’t taking in the news.
(3) Why did you absent yourself from the vital meeting?
(4) His absence is due to illness.
Sol. Answer: (2)
Absenteeism and absentist, the two words given are language traps. The word absentist is a created
word and has nothing to do with usage or dictionary meaning.
Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results and preserving the sites once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the publication of results. At the same time, they would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal activities.
You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply everything that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong.
I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions known as l’melekh handles have been found in abundance—more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be photographed and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer. A purchaser could even be required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist who excavated it?
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose
(A) an alternative to museum display of artifacts
(B) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession
(C) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value
(D) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites
(E) a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts
2. The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:
(A) A market for such artifacts already exists.
(B) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
(C) There is likely to be a continuing supply of such artifacts.
(D) Museums are well supplied with examples of such artifacts.
(E) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those already catalogued in museum collections.
3. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum basements?
(A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts.
(B) Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage.
(C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become separated from each other.
(D) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in temperature and humidity.
(E) Such artifacts’ often remain uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage.
4. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines 31-34) to emphasize which of the following points?
(A) Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable, although more rare, than royal seal impressions.
(B) Artifacts that are very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists.
(C) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are available in large quantities.
(D) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing large quantities of salable artifacts.
(E) Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread, particularly on the island of Cyprus.
5. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.
(B) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
(C) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
(D) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only duplicate artifacts.
(E) Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal excavators.
6. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal?
(A) Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts.
(B) An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the demand for them will fall.
(C) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors.
(D) Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of artifacts for resale.
(E) Counterfeiting of artifacts will become more commonplace.
7. The author implies that which of the following would occur if duplicate artifacts were sold on the open market?
I. Illegal excavation would eventually cease completely.
II. Cyprus would become the primary source of marketable duplicate artifacts.
III. Archaeologists would be able to publish the results of their excavations more frequently than they currently do.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
(This passage is excerpted from material published in 1980.)
Federal efforts to aid minority businesses began in the 1960’s when the Small Business Administration (SBA) began making federally guaranteed loans and government-sponsored management and technical assistance available to minority business enterprises. While this program enabled many minority entrepreneurs to form new businesses, the results were disappointing, since managerial inexperience, unfavorable locations, and capital shortages led to high failure rates. Even years after the program was implemented, minority business receipts were not quite two percent of the national economy’s total receipts.
Recently federal policymakers have adopted an approach intended to accelerate development of the minority business sector by moving away from directly aiding small minority enterprises and toward supporting larger, growth-oriented minority firms through intermediary companies. In this approach, large corporations participate in the development of successful and stable minority businesses by making use of government-sponsored venture capital. The capital is used by a participating company to establish a Minority Enterprise Small Business Investment Company or MESBIC. The MESBIC then provides capital and guidance to minority businesses that have potential to become future suppliers or customers of the sponsoring company.
MESBIC’s are the result of the belief that providing established firms with easier access to relevant management techniques and more job-specific experience, as well as substantial amounts of capital, gives those firms a greater opportunity to develop sound business foundations than does simply making general management experience and small amounts of capital available. Further, since potential markets for the minority businesses already exist through the sponsoring companies, the minority businesses face considerably less risk in terms of location and market fluctuation. Following early financial and operating problems, sponsoring corporations began to capitalize MESBIC’s far above the legal minimum of $500,000 in order to generate sufficient income and to sustain the quality of management needed. MESBIC’s are now emerging as increasingly important financing sources for minority enterprises.
Ironically, MESBIC staffs, which usually consist of Hispanic and Black professionals, tend to approach investments in minority firms more pragmatically than do many MESBIC directors, who are usually senior managers from sponsoring corporations. The latter often still think mainly in terms of the “social responsibility approach” and thus seem to prefer deals that are riskier and less attractive than normal investment criteria would warrant. Such differences in viewpoint have produced uneasiness among many minority staff members, who feel that minority entrepreneurs and businesses should be judged by established business considerations. These staff members believe their point of view is closer to the original philosophy of MESBIC’s and they are concerned that, unless a more prudent course is followed, MESBIC directors may revert to policies likely to re-create the disappointing results of the original SBA approach.
1. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The use of MESBIC’s for aiding minority entrepreneurs seems to have greater potential for success than does the original SBA approach.
(B) There is a crucial difference in point of view between the staff and directors of some MESBIC’s.
(C) After initial problems with management and marketing, minority businesses have begun to expand at a steady rate.
(D) Minority entrepreneurs wishing to form new businesses now have several equally successful federal programs on which to rely.
(E) For the first time since 1960, large corporations are making significant contributions to the development of minority businesses.
2. According to the passage, the MESBIC approach differs from the SBA approach in that MESBIC’s
(A) seek federal contracts to provide markets for minority businesses
(B) encourage minority businesses to provide markets for other minority businesses
(C) attempt to maintain a specified rate of growth in the minority business sector
(D) rely on the participation of large corporations to finance minority businesses
(E) select minority businesses on the basis of their location
3. Which of the following does the author cite to support the conclusion that the results of the SBA program were disappointing?
(A) The small number of new minority enterprises formed as a result of the program
(B) The small number of minority enterprises that took advantage of the management and technical assistance offered under the program
(C) The small percentage of the nation’s business receipts earned by minority enterprises following the programs, implementation
(D) The small percentage of recipient minority enterprises that were able to repay federally guaranteed loans made under the program
(E) The small number of minority enterprises that chose to participate in the program
4. Which of the following statements about the SBA program can be inferred from the passage?
(A) The maximum term for loans made to recipient businesses was 15 years.
(B) Business loans were considered to be more useful to recipient businesses than was management and technical assistance.
(C) The anticipated failure rate for recipient businesses was significantly lower than the rate that actually resulted.
(D) Recipient businesses were encouraged to relocate to areas more favorable for business development.
(E) The capitalization needs of recipient businesses were assessed and then provided for adequately.
5. Based on information in the passage, which of the following would be indicative of the pragmatism of MESBIC staff members?
I. A reluctance to invest in minority businesses that show marginal expectations of return on the investments
II. A desire to invest in minority businesses that produce goods and services likely to be of use to the sponsoring company
III. A belief that the minority business sector is best served by investing primarily in newly established businesses
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
6. The author refers to the “financial and operating problems” (line 38) encountered by MESBIC’s primarily in order to
(A) broaden the scope of the discussion to include the legal considerations of funding MESBIC’S through sponsoring companies
(B) call attention to the fact that MESBIC’s must receive adequate funding in order to function effectively
(C) show that sponsoring companies were willing to invest only $500,000 of government-sponsored venture capital in the original MESBIC’s
(D) compare SBA and MESBIC limits on minimum funding
(E) refute suggestions that MESBIC’s have been only marginally successful
7. The author’s primary objective in the passage is to
(A) disprove the view that federal efforts to aid minority businesses have been ineffective
(B) explain how federal efforts to aid minority businesses have changed since the 1960’s
(C) establish a direct link between the federal efforts to aid minority businesses made before the 1960’s and those made in the 1980’s
(D) analyze the basis for the belief that job-specific experience is more useful to minority businesses than is general management experience
(E) argue that the “social responsibility approach” to aiding minority businesses is superior to any other approach
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the attitude of some MESBIC staff members toward the investments preferred by some MESBIC directors can best be described as
9. The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions?
(A) What was the average annual amount, in dollars, of minority business receipts before the SBA strategy was implemented?
(B) What locations are considered to be unfavorable for minority businesses?
(C) What is the current success rate for minority businesses that are capitalized by MESBIC’s?
(D) How has the use of federal funding for minority businesses changed since the 1960’s?
(E) How do minority businesses apply to participate in a MESBIC program?
Answers of above passages