Saturday, May 30, 2009
"If you can eliminate all options except two, guess..." says Gaurav Bhattacharya, a 100 Percentiler in CAT 2007. Well, I have to dis-agree with him here, as guessing is something much more difficult than actually solving the question.
Why do I say this?
Well, the IIM professors who make the CAT, design it so as to eliminate all chances of people making the cut just-by-chance. They are looking for real intellect and not beginner's luck.
Guessing is something which can be done only if you have had already experienced similar questions many times before and are sure about what the answer could look/be like. For a problem/question which appears completely new to you, it is wise to let it be and use the time to solve another problem which you know how to solve.
What about guessing in verbal section?
Most students believe that the verbal section is pure luck and works on pure guessing. I know many 99+ percentilers who believe that the law of averages will ensure a 50% accuracy if they answer most of the questions. However, this is not true. Though the verbal ability section looks ambiguous and the answers in the key look unlikely at the first glance, a thorough analysis of the answers will prove otherwise. One needn't be a Charles Dickens to crack the CAT verbal, nor does he need to answer all the 40 questions.
A person answering 20 questions with 5 mistakes would obtain 55 marks (ie., 75% accuracy) which would be a 96+ percentile - enough to fetch him all calls. While a person answering 38 questions with 19 mistakes (50% accuracy) would be getting the same 57 marks. However, answering 20 questions would take much less time and effort compared to answering 38 questions. A person answering 20 questions can even leave out a whole Reading Comprehension passage which he finds difficult or time consuming while a person answering 38 questions would have spent at least 10 - 15 mins on the same passage and also guessing through it to attain such a high attempt rate.
A similar logic can be applied to QA or DI sections.
Solving 12 problems with no mistakes out of 30 in QA/DI would fetch you 48 marks which is 98+%ile while answering 18-20 questions out of 30 with 6-8 mistakes can cost you a call from the top 3 IIMs.
Its not the number of questions you answer, but the number of questions you answer RIGHT.
Remember, you don't need to top in the CAT - you just need to clear all cut offs and clear the final cut off - for which you don't need to be a super human.
Thursday, May 28, 2009
I am back with all new Quantitative Aptitude tips and tricks. As we all now that if we know the basic tricks of quantitative maths we can easily apply those tricks in Data Interpretation as well. So I have collected all the small but effective tricks of mathematics to make your calculations quite faster than ever. These tricks are like one get a treasure and you can clear any mathematical problem asked in any MBA entrance exam such as CAT, XAT, SNAP, FMS, MAT, MHCET etc.
So pals get these tricks as early as possible and do try these tricks with examples because cramming cannot take you anywhere. You need to do practice with these tricks to get perfection in them.
At last all the best and I shall be back tomorrow with new quantitative questions and RC passages as well as sentence correction exercise.
Get Maths tips and tricks at
Wednesday, May 27, 2009
First of all I want you to forgive me because I was not able to upload DI exercise solutions due to some complications with my computer. But now I am fine with my comp. So here I give you the solutions of DI exercise.
Monday, May 25, 2009
I hope that you enjoyed solving seven mocks given by me. Send comments if you liked them. I am collecting more mock CAT tests so that you can have enough material to crack the toughest exam CAT. So here I give you a very good bunch of questions based on quantitative ability. It also contains XAT 2008 and 2009 papers. Go and get it downloaded.
You cannot afford to be slow from the very beginning. The momentum has to be build right from the very question itself. Another useful strategy is to know your strengths clearly. There are different sections in CAT. You might be good in some and might need extra time for others. Try to tackle the sections you are good at in the beginning. This will not only boost your confidence but will help you manage your remaining time more judiciously.
Always remember, every person is not a born genius and CAT is not only for those who are blessed with extraordinary intellect. With strict perseverance and discipline, you can also make your dreams come true.
1) Plan backwards
You will never really remember when your CAT preparation started, but you will always remember when it ended. Did I hear 19th November? No, it will end on the 17th November. The CAT is an exam where presence of mind is essential, studying till the last minute or till the last day leads to an exhausted mind.
So it is a good idea to stop preparing on the Friday evening before the CAT. So currently your deadline is 17th November. The last few months will be spent primarily on taking comprehensive tests. Let’s try and work that out.
Right now is a good time to decide how many comprehensive tests you will take (including sims/ mocks/ aims).
I think 30 tests are fairly sufficient. There is no point taking a test everyday or worse still, taking 2 tests per day. Working with 30 tests will easily take you between 70-80 days. This is because if you take a test with feedback on day 1 you will revise and take some area tests on day 2. Also you may need one or two days of break.
So, assuming 75 days for comprehensive tests, takes your deadline to the end of August.
Taking full length tests right after covering your basics, is like walking into harsh sunlight from an air conditioned room, it will definitely lead to discomfort and if you are unlucky then perhaps headaches and vomiting too. Hence there should be some middle layer which acts like room temperature, in our analogy. That middle layer is going to be your section tests. So in the last fifteen days of August, you should take around two section tests at least from each area and spend some time going through the analysis and feedback for the tests. This will be the first time usually when you really start solving with the second hand making a loud noise every second. So get used to the idea before you venture into the comprehensive test territory.
So finally we have come to our first major deadline 15th August i.e. Independence day. Symbolically, it will be an independence of sorts for all of you. Independence from the normal area of basics and theory. Independence from learning and honing what you already know. From 15th August, you will be looking at applying what you have learnt and if you have learnt well. Then believe me you will enjoy the process.
2) In-depth Scheduling
With 15th August as the deadline, you should make a list of what is the kind of theory you want to complete, till that time. I have made a rudimentary representative list here to work from:
Book on Verbal Ability questions
Book on Reading Comprehension questions
Book on Analytical Reasoning
Book on Data Interpretation
Practice book for Math
Your maximum time should be spent doing two major activities: reading and Math.
3) Daily schedule
Make a daily schedule which incorporates all your routines and breaks. If you watch movies a lot then it would be silly to make a schedule which does not consider 3 hours a week on the week-end spent in catching the latest release. Also try to shuffle the subjects, so that you do not get bored with one subject. A good time table for 2 days can look like this:
Half an hour of reading
Half an hour of “word list”
2 hours of math
Half an hour of reading
half an hour of “word list”
1 hour of analytical reasoning / data interpretation
1 hour of reading comprehension exercises / verbal ability
For those who read as a hobby this will not be a major problem. For others, it is essential that you take out anything between 30 minutes to one hour for reading, daily. For the uninitiated reader, you can start by reading fiction but there is no use if you spend 3 months reading one big book by, say, Ayn Rand. Instead pick up any collection of short stories by assorted authors and start reading those.
You will get used to various styles and different settings and, of course, different content. After reading fiction for one to one and half months, you can graduate to non–fiction. So, the next time you log onto pagalguy.com, open another window where you google on various CAT topics (a list of CAT topics is given as an appendix) and read articles related to them. The advantages are two–fold. Firstly, you will get used to CAT-like passages and secondly, you will start gaining some knowledge on these topics. So the next time you have an RC on the same topic, you will not feel completely lost. For these reading sessions, never focus on speed. Only focus on understanding, if you read enough your speed will automatically increase.
Reading will not only help you in the verbal section, but also increase your comprehension in the other sections. It is the single most important factor that will help you crack the CAT.
5) Word List
There are very few questions that directly require knowledge of words. But knowing a lot of good words and improving your vocabulary will never harm but always help your CAT preparations. So pick up a good word list and start working on the word list every day or if your vocabulary is already good, then every alternate day. Even if you do an alphabet a week, you will take around 6 months, to complete the word list. Having a good vocabulary also ensures fluency in GD/PI. This is the part, where students are lazy, but after the CAT if you feel that just knowing one word would have fetched an extra mark in no time, thenit really hurts.
Math, based on strengths and weaknesses, should be done either every alternate day or every day. Go through the theory, solved examples and then tackle exercises. If you cannot solve a problem do not rush to the explanatory answers, give it some time. Think. Get your mind to oil those rusted math gears and levers.
Try solving problems in the head, minimize the use of pen and paper
Make a note of important relationships in a topic.
Make a note of innovative approaches.
Remember writing a lot is very unhealthy for the CAT, but after you solve it in your head writing the explanation will clear doubts and reinforce learning. So please make good notes.
Thursday, May 21, 2009
I didn't posted any Quant injection, RC Passages or DI Exercises for some days because I was busy in collecting more material for you people. I have so many friends who are doing MBA in reputed colleges(IIMs, XLRI, IMT). So I was visiting them to collect all the material which they used to prepare for the various MBA entrance tests. So now I have got a large collection of material. It is near about 350 MB. So I am unable to upload it once. That is why I have decided to give it in pieces.
So here is first piece o my collection. All new seven mock CATs for free.
Go and download it as soon as possible.
Guys I am also a human being so waiting for your precious comments.
Tuesday, May 19, 2009
The answers of Quant Injection of 17th May 2009 are as given below:
1) b 2) e 3) c 4) e 5) b 6) a 7) c 8 c 9) b 10)b 11)b 12)e 13)a 14)c 15)b 16)d 17)d 18 )a 19)a 20)e 21)a 22)d 23)e 24)a 25)d
I hope that you enjoyed solving Quant Injection. As these questions can take you through your favorite MBA institute. So the answers of Quant Injection 15th May 2009 are as given below:
The answers of RC Passages of 17th May 2009 are as given below:
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The answers of RC Passages of 15th May 2009 are as given below:
Monday, May 18, 2009
I hope that you are enjoying solving tests given by me. But folks, I am also a human being. It will cost you nothing if you appreciate me but it will motivate me to do more for you. If you like or hate anything do say it via a comment. I'll accept it as it will be. Anyway, Here I am uploading Quant Injection for 17th May 2009.
1) The duration of this test is 50 minutes and the test is meant to be taken in one-go without any break(s).
2) This test has 25 questions. Each question carries +4 marks on answering correctly.
3) Wrong answer(s) carries negative mark that is progressive. For the 1st two wrong answers the negative marking is -1 each, and -1 more on the previous for each subsequent wrong answer. E.g. 5 wrong answers attract penalty of (-1*2 – 2-3-4 = -11 marks).
4) Use of slide rule, log tables and calculators is not permitted.
5) Use the blank space in the question paper for the rough work.
(1) There are 12 towns grouped into four zones with three towns per zone. It is intended to connect the towns with telephone lines such that every two towns are connected with three direct lines if they belong to the same zone, and with only one direct line otherwise. How many direct telephone lines are required?
(a) 72 (b) 90 (c) 96 (d) 108 (e) 120
(2) If logx/log10 - log√x/log10 = 2log10/logx, then a possible value of x is given by
(a) 10 (b) 1/100 (c) 1/1000 (d) 100 (e) exactly two of the foregoing
(3) ABCDEF is a regular hexagon. Points P and Q are on AB and CD respectively such that AP/BP = CQ/QD = 3. What is the ratio area(BPDC)/area(ABCDEF)?
(a) 5:24 (b) 11:54 (c) 19:96 (d) 5:27 (e) 7:32
(4) The set M consists of p consecutive integers with sum 2p. The set N consists of 2p consecutive integers with sum p. The difference between the largest elements of M and N is 9. Then p is
(a) 17 (b) 36 (c) 9 (d) 27 (e) 21
(5) The angle between the hour and minute hands of a standard 12-hour clock is exactly 1 degree. The time is an integral number n of minutes after noon (where 0 < ab =" a," bc =" b," dx =" (a)" x =" -|a|b,"> 0 (d) a – xb ≤ 0 (e) a > b
(12) A lecture room has a rectangular array of chairs. There are 6 boys in each row and 8 girls in each column. 15 chairs are unoccupied. How many distinct pairs of (row, column) can this lecture room have?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 3 (e) 5
(13) Consider two different cloth cutting processes. In the first one, n circular cloth pieces are cut from a square cloth piece of side s in the following steps: the original square of side s is divided into n smaller squares, not necessarily of the same size; then a circle of maximum possible area is cut from each of the smaller squares. In the second process, only one circle of maximum possible area is cut from the square of side s and the process ends there. The cloth pieces remaining after cutting the circles are scrapped in both the processes. The ratio of the total scrap cloth generated in the former to that in the latter is: (∏ = circumference of the circle/diameter of the circle)
(a) 1:1 (b) √2:1 (c) n(4-∏)/(4n-∏) (d) (4n-∏)/n(4-∏) (e) 1:√2
(14) The remainder when x^100 (x > 0) is divided by x^3 + 1 is
(a) x^2 + x + 1 (b) x (c) x^3 – x + 1 (d) 2x^2 – 1 (e) -x
(15) Two stations A and B are 920 km apart. A train T1, which stops for 5 minutes in every town-station and for 3 minutes in every village-station started from A with a speed of 60km/h towards B and at the same time a train T2 with a speed of 80km/h which does not stop in any intermediate station started from B towards A. They met at C which is 560 km away from B. If the number of town-stations between A and C is less than the number of village-stations, then at least how many stations - town or village - are there between A and C? Assume T1 stops only at town or village-stations.
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 18 (e) 20
(16) What is the area enclosed by the graph of |x - 60| + |y| = |x/4|?
(a) 120 (b) 240 (c) 360 (d) 480 (e) 720
(17) In a triangle PQR, PQ = QR, S and T are points on PR and PQ respectively such that RQ = QS = ST = TP. Then
(a) (75, 90) (b) (105, 120) (c) (135, 150) (d) (120, 135) (e) none of the foregoing
(18) a, b, c, d, e, f, g are non-negative such that a+b+c+d+e+f+g = 1. Then the minimum value of max(a+b+c, b+c+d, c+d+e, d+e+f, e+f+g) is
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/7 (c) 1 (d) 0 (e) none of the foregoing
(19) Let the length of common tangents when two circles cut each other at a right angle be x. The length of common tangent when these two circles are separated so as to touch each other is
(a) √2x (b) (√2+1)x (c) √3x (d) (√3+1)x (e) (√5+1)x/2
(20) If a/(b+c) + b/(c+a) + c/(a+b) = 1, then (a^3 + b^3 + c^3)/abc is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -3 (d) 3 (e) none of the foregoing
(21) Nokia manufactures mobile handsets and marks a price which is 8 times the manufacturing price, and prints it on the handset. They sell it to a distributor at a certain discount. The distributor then sells it to the wholesaler and offers him a discount equal to 3/4th of the discount that he received from the manufacturer. The wholesaler then sells it to the retailer at a discount equal to 2/3rd of the discount he received from the distributor. The retailer finally sells it to the customer at a discount equal to 1/2 the discount that he received from the wholesaler. If all the discounts are given on the price printed on the box and if the wholesaler made a profit of 50%, then who made the least profit?
(a) Manufacturer (b) Distributor (c) Wholesaler (d) Retailer (e) can not be determined
(22) Given a set of n rays in a plane, define a reversal as the operation of reversing precisely one ray and obtaining a new set of rays. If all the rays are reversed after 42 operations, then n can be
(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 41 (d) 24 (e) At least two of the foregoing
(23) Quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed in a circle with diameter AD = 4. If sides AB=BC = 1 , then CD equals
(a) 5/2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) 7/2
(24) A task is assigned to a group of 11 men, not all of whom have the same capacity to work. Every day exactly 2 men out of the group work on the task, with no pair of men working together twice. Even after all the possible pairs have worked once, all the men together had to work for exactly one day more to finish the task. What is the number of days that will be required for all the men working together to finish the job.
(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 33 (d) 12 (e) none of the foregoing
(25) Let x = (n^4 + 256 + 4n(n^2 + 16))/(n+4)^2. If 4 <= n^2 <= 49 then, (a) 12 <= x <= 147 (b) 28 <= x <= 95 (c) 12 <= x <= 37 (d) 12 <= x <= 95 (e) 28 <= x <= 147
*Note:- The answers for above test.
Between the eighth and eleventh centuries A. D., the Byzantine Empire staged an almost unparalleled economic and cultural revival, a recovery that is all the more striking because it followed a long period of severe internal decline. By the early eighth century, the empire had lost roughly two-thirds of the territory it had possessed in the year 600, and its remaining area was being raided by Arabs and Bulgarians, who at times threatened to take Constantinople and extinguish the empire altogether. The wealth of the state and its subjects was greatly diminished, and artistic and literary production had virtually ceased. By the early eleventh century, however, the empire had regained almost half of its lost possessions, its new frontiers were secure, and its influence extended far beyond its borders. The economy had recovered, the treasury was full, and art and scholarship had advanced.
To consider the Byzantine military, cultural, and economic advances as differentiated aspects of a single phenomenon is reasonable. After all, these three forms of progress have gone together in a number of states and civilizations. Rome under Augustus and fifth-century Athens provide the most obvious examples in antiquity. Moreover, an examination of the apparent sequential connections among military, economic, and cultural forms of progress might help explain the dynamics of historical change.
The common explanation of these apparent connections in the case of Byzantium would run like this: when the empire had turned back enemy raids on its own territory and had begun to raid and conquer enemy territory, Byzantine resources naturally expanded and more money became available to patronize art and literature. Therefore, Byzantine military achievements led to economic advances, which in turn led to cultural revival.
No doubt this hypothetical pattern did apply at times during the course of the recovery. Yet it is not clear that military advances invariably came first, economic advances second, and intellectual advances third. In the 860’s the Byzantine Empire began to recover from Arab incursions so that by 872 the military balance with the Abbasid Caliphate had been permanently altered in the empire’s favor. The beginning of the empire’s economic revival, however, can be placed between 810 and 830. Finally, the Byzantine revival of learning appears to have begun even earlier. A number of notable scholars and writers appeared by 788 and, by the last decade of the eighth century, a cultural revival was in full bloom, a revival that lasted until the fall of Constantinople in 1453. Thus the commonly expected order of military revival followed by economic and then by cultural recovery was reversed in Byzantium. In fact, the revival of Byzantine learning may itself have influenced the subsequent economic and military expansion.
1. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The Byzantine Empire was a unique case in which the usual order of military and economic revival preceding cultural revival was reversed.
(B) The economic, cultural, and military revival in the Byzantine Empire between the eighth and eleventh centuries was similar in its order to the sequence of revivals in Augustan Rome and fifth century Athens.
(C) After 810 Byzantine economic recovery spurred a military and, later, cultural expansion that lasted until 1453.
(D) The eighth-century revival of Byzantine learning is an inexplicable phenomenon, and its economic and military precursors have yet to be discovered.
(E) The revival of the Byzantine Empire between the eighth and eleventh centuries shows cultural rebirth preceding economic and military revival, the reverse of the commonly accepted order of progress.
2. The primary purpose of the second paragraph is which of the following?
(A) To establish the uniqueness of the Byzantine revival
(B) To show that Augustan Rome and fifth-century Athens are examples of cultural, economic, and military expansion against which all subsequent cases must be measured
(C) To suggest that cultural, economic, and military advances have tended to be closely interrelated in different societies
(D) To argue that, while the revivals of Augustan Rome and fifth-century Athens were similar, they are unrelated to other historical examples
(E) To indicate that, wherever possible, historians should seek to make comparisons with the earliest chronological examples of revival
3. It can be inferred from the passage that by the eleventh century the Byzantine military forces
(A) had reached their peak and begun to decline
(B) had eliminated the Bulgarian army
(C) were comparable in size to the army of Rome under Augustus
(D) were strong enough to withstand the Abbasid Caliphate’s military forces
(E) had achieved control of Byzantine governmental structures
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Byzantine Empire sustained significant territorial losses
(A) in 600
(B) during the seventh century
(C) a century after the cultural achievements of the Byzantine Empire had been lost
(D) soon after the revival of Byzantine learning
(E) in the century after 873
5. In the third paragraph, the author most probably provides an explanation of the apparent connections among economic, military, and cultural development in order to
(A) suggest that the process of revival in Byzantium accords with this model
(B) set up an order of events that is then shown to be not generally applicable to the case of Byzantium
(C) cast aspersions on traditional historical scholarship about Byzantium
(D) suggest that Byzantium represents a case for which no historical precedent exists
(E) argue that military conquest is the paramount element in the growth of empires
6. Which of the following does the author mention as crucial evidence concerning the manner in which the Byzantine revival began?
(A) The Byzantine military revival of the 860’s led to economic and cultural advances.
(B) The Byzantine cultural revival lasted until 1453.
(C) The Byzantine economic recovery began in the 900’s.
(D) The revival of Byzantine learning began toward the end of the eighth century.
(E) By the early eleventh century the Byzantine Empire had regained much of its lost territory.
7. According to the author, “The common explanation” (line 28) of connections between economic, military, and cultural development is
(A) revolutionary and too new to have been applied to the history of the Byzantine Empire
(B) reasonable, but an antiquated theory of the nature of progress
(C) not applicable to the Byzantine revival as a whole, but does perhaps accurately describe limited periods during the revival
(D) equally applicable to the Byzantine case as a whole and to the history of military, economic, and cultural advances in ancient Greece and Rome
(E) essentially not helpful, because military, economic, and cultural advances are part of a single phenomenon
Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system is based on the detection of photons—quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neutrinos can thus escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them information about the site and circumstances of their production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos could provide new information about a wide variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history of the universe.
But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with other matter? Twenty-five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been with neutrinos created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely massive, because great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons), and the more massive the detector, the greater the probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting with a neutrino. In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering effects of other particles.
Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for Deep Underwater Muon and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting medium is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom of seawater, the result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can be detected by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the sensors will shield them from the interfering effects of other high-energy particles raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an important source of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy from visible light to radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of these discoveries came as a surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
1. Which of the following titles best summarizes the passage as a whole?
(A) At the Threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
(B) Neutrinos and the History of the Universe
(C) The Creation and Study of Neutrinos
(D) The DUMAND System and How It Works
(E) The Properties of the Neutrino
2. With which of the following statements regarding neutrino astronomy would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present forms of astronomy.
(B) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the DUMAND project fails.
(C) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to major breakthroughs in astronomy.
(D) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that will be more surprising than past discoveries.
(E) Neutrino astronomy will always be characterized by a large time lag between hypothesis and experimental confirmation.
3. In the last paragraph, the author describes the development of astronomy in order to
(A) suggest that the potential findings of neutrino astronomy can be seen as part of a series of astronomical successes
(B) illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
(C) demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND apparatus in detecting neutrinos
(D) name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino astronomy will illuminate
(E) contrast the motivation of earlier astronomers with that of the astrophysicists working on the DUMAND project
4. According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in astronomy is that they
(A) have been detected for the last twenty-five years
(B) possess a variable electric charge
(C) are usually extremely massive
(D) carry information about their history with them
(E) are very similar to other electromagnetic particles
5. According to the passage, the primary use of the apparatus mentioned in lines 24-32 would be to
(A) increase the mass of a neutrino
(B) interpret the information neutrinos carry with them
(C) study the internal structure of a neutrino
(D) see neutrinos in distant regions of space
(E) detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
6. The passage states that interactions between neutrinos and other matter are
7. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason that neutrinos are hard to detect?
(A) Their pervasiveness in the universe
(B) Their ability to escape from different regions of space
(C) Their inability to penetrate dense matter
(D) The similarity of their structure to that of nucleons
(E) The infrequency of their interaction with other matter
8. According to the passage, the interaction of a neutrino with other matter can produce
(A) particles that are neutral and massive
(B) a form of radiation that permeates the universe
(C) inaccurate information about the site and circumstances of the neutrino’s production
(D) charged particles and light
(E) a situation in which light and other forms of electromagnetic radiation are blocked
9. According to the passage, one of the methods used to establish the properties of neutrinos was
(A) detection of photons
(B) observation of the interaction of neutrinos with gamma rays
(C) observation of neutrinos that were artificially created
(D) measurement of neutrinos that interacted with particles of seawater
(E) experiments with electromagnetic radiation
Answers of above passages
How many really suffer as a result of labor market problems? This is one of the most critical yet contentious social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hardship. Unemployment does not have the same dire consequences today as it did in the 1930’s when most of the unemployed were primary breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there were no countervailing social programs for those failing in the labor market. Increasing affluence, the rise of families with more than one wage earner, the growing predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and improved social welfare protection have unquestionably mitigated the consequences of joblessness. Earnings and income data also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families. Most of those counted by the poverty statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family responsibilities which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of labor market pathologies.
Yet there are also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labor-market-related hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently interact to undermine the capacity for self-support. Since the number experiencing joblessness at some time during the year is several times the number unemployed in any month, those who suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or exceed average annual unemployment, even though only a minority of the jobless in any month really suffer. For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is another working part-time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but wanting a job. Finally, income transfers in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those failing in the labor market are adequately protected.
As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labor market problems number in the hundreds of thousands or the tens of millions, and, hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one area of agreement in this debate—that the existing poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate for one their primary applications, measuring the consequences of labor market problems.
1. Which of the following is the principal topic of the passage?
(A) What causes labor market pathologies that result in suffering
(B) Why income measures are imprecise in measuring degrees of poverty
(C) Which of the currently used statistical procedures are the best for estimating the incidence of hardship that is due to unemployment
(D) Where the areas of agreement are among poverty, employment, and earnings figures
(E) How social statistics give an unclear picture of the degree of hardship caused by low wages and insufficient employment opportunities
2. The author uses “labor market problems” in lines 1-2 to refer to which of the following?
(A) The overall causes of poverty
(B) Deficiencies in the training of the work force
(C) Trade relationships among producers of goods
(D) Shortages of jobs providing adequate income
(E) Strikes and inadequate supplies of labor
3. The author contrasts the 1930’s with the present in order to show that
(A) more people were unemployed in the 1930’s
(B) unemployment now has less severe effects
(C) social programs are more needed now
(D) there now is a greater proportion of elderly and handicapped people among those in poverty
(E) poverty has increased since the 1930’s
4. Which of the following proposals best responds to the issues raised by the author?
(A) Innovative programs using multiple approaches should be set up to reduce the level of unemployment.
(B) A compromise should be found between the positions of those who view joblessness as an evil greater than economic control and those who hold the opposite view.
(C) New statistical indices should be developed to measure the degree to which unemployment and inadequately paid employment cause suffering.
(D) Consideration should be given to the ways in which statistics can act as partial causes of the phenomena that they purport to measure.
(E) The labor force should be restructured so that it corresponds to the range of job vacancies.
5. The author’s purpose in citing those who are repeatedly unemployed during a twelve-month period is most probably to show that
(A) there are several factors that cause the payment of low wages to some members of the labor force
(B) unemployment statistics can underestimate the hardship resulting from joblessness
(C) recurrent inadequacies in the labor market can exist and can cause hardships for individual workers
(D) a majority of those who are jobless at any one time to not suffer severe hardship
(E) there are fewer individuals who are without jobs at some time during a year than would be expected on the basis of monthly unemployment figures
6. The author states that the mitigating effect of social programs involving income transfers on the income level of low-income people is often not felt by
(A) the employed poor
(B) dependent children in single-earner families
(C) workers who become disabled
(D) retired workers
(E) full-time workers who become unemployed
7. According to the passage, one factor that causes unemployment and earnings figures to overpredict the amount of economic hardship is the
(A) recurrence of periods of unemployment for a group of low-wage workers
(B) possibility that earnings may be received from more than one job per worker
(C) fact that unemployment counts do not include those who work for low wages and remain poor
(D) establishment of a system of record-keeping that makes it possible to compile poverty statistics
(E) prevalence, among low-wage workers and the unemployed, of members of families in which others are employed
8. The conclusion stated in lines 33-39 about the number of people who suffer as a result of forced idleness depends primarily on the point that
(A) in times of high unemployment, there are some people who do not remain unemployed for long
(B) the capacity for self-support depends on receiving moderate-to-high wages
(C) those in forced idleness include, besides the unemployed, both underemployed part-time workers and those not actively seeking work
(D) at different times during the year, different people are unemployed
(E) many of those who are affected by unemployment are dependents of unemployed workers
9. Which of the following, if true, is the best criticism of the author’s argument concerning why poverty statistics cannot properly be used to show the effects of problems in the labor market?
(A) A short-term increase in the number of those in poverty can indicate a shortage of jobs because the basic number of those unable to accept employment remains approximately constant.
(B) For those who are in poverty as a result of joblessness, there are social programs available that provide a minimum standard of living.
(C) Poverty statistics do not consistently agree with earnings statistics, when each is taken as a measure of hardship resulting from unemployment.
(D) The elderly and handicapped categories include many who previously were employed in the labor market.
(E) Since the labor market is global in nature, poor workers in one country are competing with poor workers in another with respect to the level of wages and the existence of jobs.
In the eighteenth century, Japan’s feudal overlords, from the shogun to the humblest samurai, found themselves under financial stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to the overlords’ failure to adjust to a rapidly expanding economy, but the stress was also due to factors beyond the overlords’ control. Concentration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted as a stimulus to trade. Commercial efficiency, in turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers. Since most samurai had been reduced to idleness by years of peace, encouraged to engage in scholarship and martial exercises or to perform administrative tasks that took little time, it is not surprising that their tastes and habits grew expensive. Overlords’ income, despite the increase in rice production among their tenant farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses. Although shortfalls in overlords’ income resulted almost as much from laxity among their tax collectors (the nearly inevitable outcome of hereditary office-holding) as from their higher standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop in revenue, could put a domain in debt to the city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the shogun himself found it easy to recover.
It was difficult for individual samurai overlords to increase their income because the amount of rice that farmers could be made to pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the income of Japan’s central government consisted in part of taxes collected by the shogun from his huge domain, the government too was constrained. Therefore, the Tokugawa shoguns began to look to other sources for revenue. Cash profits from government-owned mines were already on the decline because the most easily worked deposits of silver and gold had been exhausted, although debasement of the coinage had compensated for the loss. Opening up new farmland was a possibility, but most of what was suitable had already been exploited and further reclamation was technically unfeasible. Direct taxation of the samurai themselves would be politically dangerous. This left the shoguns only commerce as a potential source of government income.
Most of the country’s wealth, or so it seemed, was finding its way into the hands of city merchants. It appeared reasonable that they should contribute part of that revenue to ease the shogun’s burden of financing the state. A means of obtaining such revenue was soon found by levying forced loans, known as goyo-kin; although these were not taxes in the strict sense, since they were irregular in timing and arbitrary in amount, they were high in yield. Unfortunately, they pushed up prices. Thus, regrettably, the Tokugawa shoguns’ search for solvency for the government made it increasingly difficult for individual Japanese who lived on fixed stipends to make ends meet.
1. The passage is most probably an excerpt from
(A) an economic history of Japan
(B) the memoirs of a samurai warrior
(C) a modern novel about eighteenth-century Japan
(D) an essay contrasting Japanese feudalism with its Western counterpart
(E) an introduction to a collection of Japanese folktales
2. Which of the following financial situations is most analogous to the financial situation in which Japan’s Tokugawa shoguns found themselves in the eighteenth century?
(A) A small business borrows heavily to invest in new equipment, but is able to pay off its debt early when it is awarded a lucrative government contract.
(B) Fire destroys a small business, but insurance covers the cost of rebuilding.
(C) A small business is turned down for a loan at a local bank because the owners have no credit history.
(D) A small business has to struggle to meet operating expenses when its profits decrease.
(E) A small business is able to cut back sharply on spending through greater commercial efficiency and thereby compensate for a loss of revenue.
3. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the samurai discussed in lines 11-16?
(A) Warmly approving
(B) Mildly sympathetic
(C) Bitterly disappointed
(D) Harshly disdainful
(E) Profoundly shocked
4. According to the passage, the major reason for the financial problems experienced by Japan’s feudal overlords in the eighteenth century was that
(A) spending had outdistanced income
(B) trade had fallen off
(C) profits from mining had declined
(D) the coinage had been sharply debased
(E) the samurai had concentrated in castle-towns
5. The passage implies that individual samurai did not find it easy to recover from debt for which of the following reasons?
(A) Agricultural production had increased.
(B) Taxes were irregular in timing and arbitrary in amount.
(C) The Japanese government had failed to adjust to the needs of a changing economy.
(D) The domains of samurai overlords were becoming smaller and poorer as government revenues increased.
(E) There was a limit to the amount in taxes that farmers could be made to pay.
6. The passage suggests that, in eighteenth-century Japan, the office of tax collector
(A) was a source of personal profit to the officeholder
(B) was regarded with derision by many Japanese
(C) remained within families
(D) existed only in castle-towns
(E) took up most of the officeholder’s time
7. Which of the following could best be substituted for the word “This” in line 47 without changing the meaning of the passage?
(A) The search of Japan’s Tokugawa shoguns for solvency
(B) The importance of commerce in feudal Japan
(C) The unfairness of the tax structure in eighteenth century Japan
(D) The difficulty of increasing government income by other means
(E) The difficulty experienced by both individual samurai and the shogun himself in extricating themselves from debt
8. The passage implies that which of the following was the primary reason why the Tokugawa shoguns turned to city merchants for help in financing the state?
(A) A series of costly wars had depleted the national treasury.
(B) Most of the country’s wealth appeared to be in city merchants’ hands.
(C) Japan had suffered a series of economic reversals due to natural disasters such as floods.
(D) The merchants were already heavily indebted to the shoguns.
(E) Further reclamation of land would not have been economically advantageous.
9. According to the passage, the actions of the Tokugawa shoguns in their search for solvency for the government were regrettable because those actions
(A) raised the cost of living by pushing up prices
(B) resulted in the exhaustion of the most easily worked deposits of silver and gold
(C) were far lower in yield than had originally been anticipated
(D) did not succeed in reducing government spending
(E) acted as a deterrent to trade
*Note:- The answers of above RC passages
Here I give another injection of Quantitative Aptitude. Enjoy it and do comment if you like it.
Note:- The answers for above test.
I congratulate those who have cleared first mock CAT. But those who were not able to clear it they don't need to disappoint. It was just to analyze your preparation. So that you can come to know about your mistakes and prepare for weaker sections. I hope that you all have now analyzed your performance. The next i.e. Second Mock CAT will be uploaded next week. Till then enjoy Quant Injections and RC Passages.
Thursday, May 14, 2009
I had promised to give you a Mock CAT to solve, Because only Mock CAT can give you the best analysis of your preparation. So here I announce the First Mock CAT. The link is given below. Download the test and solve it in your home. The answers of this Mock are given in the end of the test with very good and easily understandable explanation. So, go and get it solved.
Do comment if you like it or not.
*Note:- 1. Solve the whole test in one sitting. Only then you can get the full experience.
2. After the test match you answers with the solutions given at the end of the test. Also find out the method you used and method used by the test owner.
3. Remember If you take 2 hours to take the test then spend 4 hours to analyze you mistakes.
Next Mock CAT will be uploaded next week.
Until then enjoy Quant Injections, RC Passages and DI exercises.
The answers of RC Passages(13 May) are as given below:-
1. E 2. B 3. A 4. E 5. D
6. A 7. B 8. B
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A
*Note:- The new RC Passages will be uploaded tomorrow.
The answers of Quant Injection of 13th May are given below:
1) e 2) c 3) c 4) b 5) e 6) a 7) d 8 d 9) a 10)b 11)d 12)d 13)c 14)b 15)b
16)c 17)a 18 c 19)e 20)a 21)e 22)b 23)a 24)e 25)e
Do comment if you like or hate anything. Also give me suggestions so that i can improve the blog for your convenience.
*Note:- Next Quant Injection will be uploaded tomorrow.
Actually there were some diagrams in the test, So I was not able to upload on my blog but I've given the link so you can download the test and also save it on your computer for future reference.
*Note:- The answers for the above Quant Questions will be updated tomorrow.
No very satisfactory account of the mechanism that caused the formation of the ocean basins has yet been given. The traditional view supposes that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a liquid when it is subjected to small forces for long periods and that differences in temperature under oceans and continents are sufficient to produce convection in the mantle of the earth with rising convection currents under the mid-ocean ridges and sinking currents under the continents. Theoretically, this convection would carry the continental plates along as though they were on a conveyor belt and would provide the forces needed to produce the split that occurs along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has the advantage that the currents are driven by temperature differences that themselves depend on the position of the continents. Such a back-coupling, in which the position of the moving plate has an impact on the forces that move it, could produce complicated and varying motions.
On the other hand, the theory is implausible because convection does not normally occur along lines, and it certainly does not occur along lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in direction, as the ridge is. Also it is difficult to see how the theory applies to the plate between the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the ridge in the Indian Ocean. This plate is growing on both sides, and since there is no intermediate trench, the two ridges must be moving apart. It would be odd if the rising convection currents kept exact pace with them. An alternative theory is that the sinking part of the plate, which is denser than the hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the plate after it. Again it is difficult to see how this applies to the ridge in the South Atlantic, where neither the African nor the American plate has a sinking part.
Another possibility is that the sinking plate cools the neighboring mantle and produces convection currents that move the plates. This last theory is attractive because it gives some hope of explaining the enclosed seas, such as the Sea of Japan. These seas have a typical oceanic floor, except that the floor is overlaid by several kilometers of sediment. Their floors have probably been sinking for long periods. It seems possible that a sinking current of cooled mantle material on the upper side of the plate might be the cause of such deep basins. The enclosed seas are an important feature of the earth’s surface, and seriously require explanation because, in addition to the enclosed seas that are developing at present behind island arcs, there are a number of older ones of possibly similar origin, such as the Gulf of Mexico, the Black Sea, and perhaps the North Sea.
1. According to the traditional view of the origin of the ocean basins, which of the following is sufficient to move the continental plates?
(A) Increases in sedimentation on ocean floors
(B) Spreading of ocean trenches
(C) Movement of mid-ocean ridges
(D) Sinking of ocean basins
(E) Differences in temperature under oceans and continents
2. It can be inferred from the passage that, of the following, the deepest sediments would be found in the
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Black Sea
(D) South Atlantic
3. The author refers to a “conveyor belt” in line 13 in order to
(A) illustrate the effects of convection in the mantle
(B) show how temperature differences depend on the positions of the continents
(C) demonstrate the linear nature of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
(D) describe the complicated motions made possible by back-coupling
(E) account for the rising currents under certain mid-ocean ridges
3. The author regards the traditional view of the origin of the oceans with
(A) slight apprehension
(B) absolute indifference
(C) indignant anger
(D) complete disbelief
(E) guarded skepticism
4. According to the passage, which of the following are separated by a plate that is growing on both sides?
(A) The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan
(B) The South Atlantic Ridge and the North Sea Ridge
(C) The Gulf of Mexico and the South Atlantic Ridge
(D) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the Indian Ocean Ridge
(E) The Black Sea and the Sea of Japan
5. Which of the following, if it could be demonstrated, would most support the traditional view of ocean formation?
(A) Convection usually occurs along lines.
(B) The upper mantle behaves as a dense solid.
(C) Sedimentation occurs at a constant rate.
(D) Sinking plates cool the mantle.
(E) Island arcs surround enclosed seas.
6. According to the passage, the floor of the Black Sea can best be compared to a
(A) rapidly moving conveyor belt
(B) slowly settling foundation
(C) rapidly expanding balloon
(D) violently erupting volcano
(E) slowly eroding mountain
7. Which of the following titles would best describe the content of the passage?
(A) A Description of the Oceans of the World
(B) Several Theories of Ocean Basin Formation
(C) The Traditional View of the Oceans
(D) Convection and Ocean Currents
(E) Temperature Differences among the Oceans of the World
The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued paleontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were—reptiles or birds—are among the questions scientists have puzzled over.
Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wing-like membrane. The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers may have been employed for grasping. When a pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal’s body.
The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in their overall structure and proportions. This is not surprising because the design of any flying vertebrate is subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T. H. Huxley reasoned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-blooded because flying implies a high rate of metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal temperature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and relatively thick hairlike fossil material was the first clear evidence that his reasoning was correct.
Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became airborne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs’ hind feet resembled a bat’s and could serve as hooks by which the animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs could not have landed in trees without damaging their wings. The third calls for high waves to channel updrafts. The wind that made such waves however, might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to control their flight once airborne.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists now generally agree that the
(A) enormous wingspan of the pterosaurs enabled them to fly great distances
(B) structure of the skeleton of the pterosaurs suggests a close evolutionary relationship to bats
(C) fossil remains of the pterosaurs reveal how they solved the problem of powered flight
(D) pterosaurs were reptiles
(E) pterosaurs walked on all fours
2. The author views the idea that the pterosaurs became airborne by rising into light winds created by waves as
3. According to the passage, the skeleton of a pterosaur can be distinguished from that of a bird by the
(A) size of its wingspan
(B) presence of hollow spaces in its bones
(C) anatomic origin of its wing strut
(D) presence of hooklike projections on its hind feet
(E) location of the shoulder joint joining the wing to its body
4. The ideas attributed to T. H. Huxley in the passage suggest that he would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
(A) An animal’s brain size has little bearing on its ability to master complex behaviors.
(B) An animal’s appearance is often influenced by environmental requirements and physical capabilities.
(C) Animals within a given family group are unlikely to change their appearance dramatically over a period of time.
(D) The origin of flight in vertebrates was an accidental development rather than the outcome of specialization or adaptation.
(E) The pterosaurs should be classified as birds, not reptiles.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is characteristic of the pterosaurs?
(A) They were unable to fold their wings when not in use.
(B) They hung upside down from branches as bats do before flight.
(C) They flew in order to capture prey.
(D) They were an early stage in the evolution of the birds.
(E) They lived primarily in a forest-like habitat.
6. Which of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph of the passage?
(A) New evidence is introduced to support a traditional point of view.
(B) Three explanations for a phenomenon are presented, and each is disputed by means of specific information.
(C) Three hypotheses are outlined, and evidence supporting each is given.
(D) Recent discoveries are described, and their implications for future study are projected.
(E) A summary of the material in the preceding paragraphs is presented, and conclusions are drawn.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that some scientists believe that pterosaurs
(A) lived near large bodies of water
(B) had sharp teeth for tearing food
(C) were attacked and eaten by larger reptiles
(D) had longer tails than many birds
(E) consumed twice their weight daily to maintain their body temperature
*Note:- The answers of above RC passages